Initial Qualification Training (IQT) Block 2 Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which of the following is a duty position in ASIT?
• ASIT duty positions include which of the following?
• PAVE stands for which four elements?
• In flight, which statement correctly describes how you verify the actual magnetic heading when applying deviation corrections?
• What is the purpose of a pitot-static system and what happens if it is blocked?
• If RAIM indicates degraded GPS integrity during flight planning, what should you do?
• Which set of cyberspace actions supports joint military operations?
• What is the USAF primary Air to Air fighter?
• In a spin, what is produced by the interaction of which flight characteristics?
• What entry requirements apply to Class C airspace?
• What is a TAF and how is it used in flight planning?
• What is the relationship of angle of attack to lift and stall?
• During flight planning, how is risk assessed and what factors are considered?
• Which US Message Text Format document provides detailed instructions necessary to initialize tactical data links?
• What best describes true north, magnetic north, and variation in navigation?
• Which statement correctly identifies the purpose of the attitude indicator in the standard instrument cluster?
• During IFR weather planning, which statement best describes weather data usage?
• Which of the following describes the key capabilities of C2Core Reports?
• What are IFR fuel reserve requirements and how should they be planned?
• Which autopilot mode is used to capture an ILS or RNAV approach during an instrument approach?
• What is the Theater Event System (TES) described as?
• What are the main components of an aircraft's electrical system and their roles?
• What is the primary function of autothrottle in flight control?
• TAWS stands for Terrain Awareness and Warning System. What is its primary purpose?
• What is a NOTAM and which categories exist?
• What does Weapons Free allow?
• J3.0-Land track reports what data?
• When intercepting a published VOR course, what is the purpose of wind correction?
• CFIT stands for which of the following?
• What is the primary task of the AMT in the COD?
• Passive AMD measures and their characteristics include which of the following?
• What does ACMREQ stand for?
• DOW Information Network Operations scope includes which activities?
• What are the recommended actions for recovering from an unusual attitude?
• Link-16 enhancements over Link-11 provide what improvements?
• What is the purpose of METARs and TAFs in flight planning, and how often are they updated?
• Which statement best describes OPTASKLINK's purpose?
• Define the difference between true north and magnetic north and how this affects navigation planning.
• Which AADC responsibility includes appointing DAADCs as required?
• When should a missed approach be initiated with a DA?
• If you suspect a pitot-static problem and decide to use an alternate static source, what should you do alongside switching sources?
• If an instrument reading seems unreliable during IFR flight, what is the first action?
• Primary objective of Offensive Cyberspace Operations?
• What is the primary purpose of vibration checks and engine instrument scanning during preflight and run-up?
• Which AMD measures are associated with DCA?
• What is crew resource management (CRM) and how should it be applied in IQT Block 2?
• Describe the overall responsibility of the Army Air and Missile Defense Command.
• What are the recommended actions for stick and rudder coordination during an instrument approach?
• What document is used to submit ATO changes for approval?
• What is RAIM and why is it important for GPS navigation?
• Which actions are typical icing countermeasures?
• Which statement correctly describes the informational capabilities of PSYOPS, MILDEC, and OPSEC?
• Which autopilot mode follows a course or navigational path?
• Which autopilot mode maintains a constant altitude?
• To identify the final approach course on a VOR approach, which actions are performed?
• Positive methods of airspace control for IAMD require which elements?
• Which statement best describes IAS, CAS, TAS, and GS?
• Define CFIT and give strategies to prevent it.
• In a go-around, what indicates a stabilized configuration?
• In-flight electrical system failure, what is the recommended initial response?
• Which factors determine standard instrument approach minimums?
• Identify the duty positions in the COD most likely to coordinate with the ASOC/ACIT.
• Explain angle of attack and its relation to stall, including how pilots monitor AoA indicators if equipped.
• What is the primary difference between ASOC and ACIT?
• Ground speed is defined as:
• In high-density airspace, which practice is essential to optimize safety?
• Who develops the ACA plan?
• Which description accurately reflects the three levels of airspace operations?
• Which of the following is a key position within ASOC/ACIT?
• What action should you take to fulfill anti-ice/de-ice requirements during icing conditions?
• Which duty position in the COD is responsible for producing and maintaining the OPTASKLINK?
• Describe the basic stall recovery procedure for a clean configuration.
• Procedural methods of airspace control for IAMD are established via coordination measures published in the ACO and guidance found in the ACP/ACO, SPINS, ROE, and related publications. Which option correctly reflects that statement?
• Which speed measure changes with altitude due to air density?
• In weather briefings, what is indicated by icing threats and what are common countermeasures?
• Why is weight and balance critical information before flight?
• WAAS augmentation provides improved integrity and accuracy for which of the following?
• JARNO is best described as which type of role?
• Which factors influence takeoff distance and performance?
• SBIRS provides which of the following as part of its purposes? Choose the option that is not a SBIRS function.
• Which WEZ type assigns engagement responsibility to SAM commanders?
• State the mission of the Patriot AMD system.
• What is the recommended sequence of actions after an engine failure immediately following takeoff in a light aircraft?
• Under which circumstance is it appropriate to disengage the autopilot during flight?
• In which scenario would IFR (Instrument Flight Rules) procedures be required?
• Which description identifies the AMT unit responsible for coordinating and managing the execution of the current ACO and the COD position they report to when supporting the current ATO?
• What is the purpose of an altimeter setting and when should you adjust it during flight?
• What is the lost communication (NORDO) procedure under IFR?
• What is the wind triangle and how is it used in navigation?
• Which factor is not typically considered in a flight risk assessment?
• What is the standard crosswind landing technique?
• Describe the mission of the AEGIS Combat System.
• Which two COD roles are most likely to coordinate with the ASOC/ACIT?
• Which statement best describes the physical aspect of the information environment?
• Describe the purpose of the Space-Based Infrared System (SBIRS).
• A non-precision instrument approach provides what type of guidance?
• When selecting an alternate airport, which factor is considered?
• What is the role of primary and secondary sources in the cross-check technique during instrument flight?
• What is the purpose of PAVE in preflight planning?
• How can weather avoidance and flight safety be optimized in high-density airspace?
• What does Weapons Tight require?
• Active AMD coverage category focused on protecting a high-value asset with tight sensor coverage.
• What does WAAS provide to aviation navigation?
• Which entities approve the ATO change after the duty officer creates the change sheet?
• What are the recommended practices for maintaining flight deck discipline and minimizing distractions?
• What is the difference between the Cyber Protection Team and the Combat Mission Team?
• When interpreting a VOR approach chart, which items are identified in the plan view and require confirmation of alignment?
• What is the purpose of a standard weather briefing and what key items should be reviewed?
• How does the joint force leverage information?
• Ground speed is affected by wind; which statement is true?
• Which hold entry uses a teardrop path with a 30-degree intercept after crossing the fix?
• What information does a METAR provide?
• What is a NOTAM and how should it be used during preflight planning?
• Two-way communications with ATC are required to enter which airspace?
• Under VFR entry into Class C airspace, what are the minimum visibility and cloud clearance requirements?
• When requesting a frequency change, what information should be transmitted and what is ATC's typical response?
• In a cross-check, what is the role of the primary source?
• Which steps correctly describe intercepting a published VOR course and maintaining course?
• After recognizing an engine failure, what essential action maximizes distance to a suitable landing area?
• Which statement best describes the limitations of weather radar in detecting hazards?
• How do weight and balance affect handling during IQT Block 2 operations?
• For the ACA, what plan does the AMT develop?
• Which protocol uses IP via SIPRNET for beyond-line-of-sight data links?
• In JAOC, the IW task CPD corresponds to which IW unit?
• Which cyber teams can be assigned to a JAOC?
• Which position is the COD advocate for the TBM target set?
• What best describes the EW planning organization within the JAOC?
• What is the correct method to recover from instrument meteorological conditions-induced disorientation?
• Explain the effects of icing on aircraft performance and how to mitigate it.
• Which statement describes the cognitive aspect of the information environment?
• METAR visibility and cloud ceiling denote and influence flight decisions by determining what?
• What does Weapons Hold allow?
• What is the purpose of including temperature and dew point in METAR reports?
• Who in the COD approves changes to the ATO?
• What is the primary purpose of standard radio phraseology in ATC communications?
• Who is the primary recipient of ASOC air operations?
• What does JEW stand for in WEZ types?
• In a pitot-static failure, which instrument should be used as the primary source of airspeed data?
• Describe the standard crosswind landing technique and its rationale.
• Define the purpose of a procedure turn and when it should be used in instrument flying.
• Explain the purpose of an instrument scan and describe a basic scan pattern.
• What is the primary purpose of Crew Resource Management (CRM) in flight operations?
• What does IMSAFE stand for, and why is it assessed before every flight?
• Defensive Cyberspace Operations function?
• Which position manages all Theater Air Defense Operations?
• In the event of a communications failure, which standard procedures should you follow?
• What are the two main categories of electrical buses in an aircraft electrical system?
• What are the types of active AMD coverage?
• In an electrical failure, under what conditions should you declare an emergency?
• What is the purpose and limitation of weather radar in flight planning?
• What form is used to request airspace changes?
• What is the purpose of Standard Instrument Departures (SIDs) and Standard Terminal Arrivals (STARs)?
• What does the physical aspect refer to in the information environment?
• Which statement best describes the combined mission of ASOC and ACIT?
• What is an IFR flight plan and why is it essential for instrument flight?
• Which of the following is NOT a Space-Based Infrared System (SBIRS) function?
• Which statements best describe SIGMETs and AIRMETs and their use in flight planning?
• Identify the key positions within the ASOC/ACIT.
• Which hold entry is a straight-in hold?
• Which TES component provides the theater commander with a real-time missile warning downlink?
• How does density altitude affect aircraft performance?
• What is a holding pattern and when is it used?
• What does Information Exchange Requirements express?
• What are standard instrument approach minimums and how are they determined for a given approach?
• Beyond-line-of-sight Link-16 protocols include which set?
• What is an Airworthiness Directive (AD) and why is it important?
• What is the difference between a stall and a spin?
• In steady level flight, what is the relationship between lift and weight?
• Describe the role of autopilot in training flights, and when should the pilot disengage it?
• Patriot AMD system mission?
• Which action is part of effective weather avoidance during IFR flight planning?
• What does vertical speed mode control in autopilot?
• List the six basic flight instruments in the standard instrument cluster and state what each indicates.
• The Combat Mission Team primarily supports which cyberspace operation?
• Who issues Airworthiness Directives and why is compliance important?
• What is the output of the AMT in the COD?
• Which data type does J3.6 report?
• Which statement about ASOC/ACIT is most accurate?
• Which describes the CO missions?
• Which J-Series messages report IAMD-related data?
• Describe the steps for handling an engine failure during takeoff at or near V1.
• Which capability does C2Core Reports provide?
• Which statement best describes the Cyber Protection Team in JAOC?
• What is the JTAGS role in theater?
• Why is sterile cockpit discipline important during critical flight phases?
• Which application is used to enter ATO changes?
• How do weather and terrain influence route planning and altitude selection?
• What is the objective of recovering from a simulated emergency in IQT Block 2 training?
• Which NOTAM category is not an actual category?
• How should a pilot determine the fuel reserve after reaching the destination with the planned alternate?
• Define V1 and explain its significance during takeoff.
• Which position maintains a logbook and supervises the duties of all enlisted defensive operations crewmembers?
• Explain the relationship between airspeed, bank angle, and stall speed during turning flight.
• During instrument approaches, which practice helps avoid over-controlling?
• How is fuel contingency planning used to manage risk during a mission?
• What is the preferred method for distributing electronic files within the AOC?
• What is ACIT's C2 capability?
• Which position assists the DDO by maintaining defensive fighter status, ADA, WCS, and ADW status?
• What is the primary purpose of RAIM in GPS navigation for IQT Block 2?
• Differentiate between minimum descent altitude (MDA) and decision altitude (DA).
• The SBIRS satellites provide which capabilities?
• What information does the heading indicator primarily provide?
• Differentiate VMC and IMC and explain how flight planning and aircraft control differ between them.
• What are common stall recognition cues and the basic recovery steps?
• Who creates the ATO change sheet used to submit changes to the ATO?
• What does setting QFE in the altimeter indicate?
• How should you respond to a complete pitot-static system failure in flight?
• What is the recommended sequence to recover from an inadvertent spin in a training aircraft?
• Which items constitute basic AADC responsibilities?
• Identify the mission of the ASOC/ACIT.
• When is a go-around required, and what is the proper technique?
• Which position monitors the Missile Warning Systems and coordinates/deconflicts warning notification procedures?
• Which statement about ACIT's role is true?
• What informs the minimums of a standard instrument approach procedure (IAP)?
• Which tasks must be completed before generating an ACO or an ACO change?
• What is the purpose of staying within a protected area during a procedure turn?
• Which description corresponds to Electronic Protection (EP)?
• What are typical VFR weather minimums within Class B airspace?
• What is the basic purpose of a flight risk assessment in the planning phase?
• Which instrument provides the pilot with the primary indication of the aircraft's rate of turn and yaw?
• How do you correct for compass deviation on a magnetic compass during flight?
• Which statement is true regarding ASOC's relationship to the JFLCC?
• Name the four aerodynamic forces acting on an aircraft in steady level flight.
• What is the primary goal of airspace control?
• What is the purpose of an altimeter setting (QNH/QFE) and how is it used to maintain altitude?